I found your article interesting to read. If I understood correctly in regards to Matt5:32 & Matt 19:9 divorce is not an adulterous sin if the spouse is guilty of adultery.
You also wrote that remarriage is not allowed in the NT ,so are you saying apart from Matt 5 & Matt 19, that
remarriage is allowed in such a case?
Why is this not also mentioned in Mark 10?
Could it be Jesus was referring to the betrothal situation and not marriage after consummation?
We have the example of Joseph and Mary in Matt 1:18-20 where Joseph was ready to divorce Mary even though they were still betrothed.
Would not Jesus take the same stance in Mark & Luke?
Also re: to 1 Cor7:15 why is it rarely mentioned that the word not bound here is different to others in the context of marriage like Rom7:2 and 1 Cor7:27 & 39.
1Cor7:15 douloō andin Rom 7:2; 1 Cor 7:27 & 39 deó. Why isn't this difference pointed out ?
Thank you
I found your article interesting to read. If I understood correctly in regards to Matt5:32 & Matt 19:9 divorce is not an adulterous sin if the spouse is guilty of adultery.
You also wrote that remarriage is not allowed in the NT ,so are you saying apart from Matt 5 & Matt 19, that
remarriage is allowed in such a case?
Why is this not also mentioned in Mark 10?
Could it be Jesus was referring to the betrothal situation and not marriage after consummation?
We have the example of Joseph and Mary in Matt 1:18-20 where Joseph was ready to divorce Mary even though they were still betrothed.
Would not Jesus take the same stance in Mark & Luke?
Also re: to 1 Cor7:15 why is it rarely mentioned that the word not bound here is different to others in the context of marriage like Rom7:2 and 1 Cor7:27 & 39.
1Cor7:15 douloō andin Rom 7:2; 1 Cor 7:27 & 39 deó. Why isn't this difference pointed out ?
Thank you