Add new comment

I wanted to comment on the question you posed about why Galilee of the Gentiles is called such if the region was populated mostly by Hebrews. It seems that Matthew (detail-oriented), vss. 4:14-16 is repeating a prophecy Isaiah gave in Isa. 9:1-2. In that prophecy, the word Gentiles is replaced by Nations. It may be that by the time Jesus began his ministry, there were mostly Jews in that region.

CAPTCHA
This question is for testing whether or not you are a human visitor and to prevent automated spam submissions.